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"The April rain, the April rain,
Comes slanting down in fitful showers,
Then from the furrow shoots the grain,
And banks are fledged with nestling flowers;
And in grey shawl and woodland bowers
The cuckoo through the April rain
Calls once again."

Mathilde Blind, April Rain
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Verb valency

danrogdanrog Posts: 17 ✭✭
My confusion started when I think of the word lay. In though why it have to be "lay to me". Why it cant be "lay me". Whe i have to use the word "to" after the verb and when i dont have to. Like in Spanish the word "lay" = mentir and you can translate "lay to me" like "miénteME" or "miénteme a MI". After a research, I couldn't find the definitively answer about it, but I start understanding it has to do with the "verb valency", like you have to memorize all the verbs and their valency. Am I right about this? or it depends on other things that I don't understand or I am missing?
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Comments

  • mheredgemheredge Teacher Here and therePosts: 31,139 mod
    Do you mean lie as in not telling the truth? Or do you mean to lie down, like when you go to sleep @danrog?

    So 'Don't lie to me,' uses to if you are asking the person not to tell you lies or stories that aren't true. You could say 'Don't lie,' but this is more general, and asking the person just doesn't tell lies to anyone.

    'To me' is meaning the same as 'me' in French or 'a mi' in Spanish.
  • danrogdanrog Posts: 17 ✭✭
    @mheredge Yeah i meant "not telling the truth".

    "to me" ="a mi" but for native people I picture that it could sounds bad if you say "lay me" referring to "tell lies" but my question is why. How you could know the grammar rules in any language to use either proposition or objects with the verbs. I found it depends on the valency and transitivity, like you have to memorize each case, but I am not sure and I want to understand this concept.
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