My confusion started when I think of the word lay. In though why it have to be "lay to me". Why it cant be "lay me". Whe i have to use the word "to" after the verb and when i dont have to. Like in Spanish the word "lay" = mentir and you can translate "lay to me" like "miénteME" or "miénteme a MI". After a research, I couldn't find the definitively answer about it, but I start understanding it has to do with the "verb valency", like you have to memorize all the verbs and their valency. Am I right about this? or it depends on other things that I don't understand or I am missing?